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If there was any oral agreement, it may or may not be binding, depending on the state. I vaguely recall a situation dealing with oral contracts when I was working in transactional law, but don't remember the specific details, other than that the written agreement took precedent over any oral agreement, which was allegedly agreed to before the written contract was entered.
So if the alleged oral (gentlemen's) agreement was followed by a written agreement, it's my understanding of contract law that the written agreement overrides any oral agreement.
You might be able to sue for what's known as "specific performance" arising from default in a contractual agreement.
The kind of attorney to see is someone who specializes in contracts, which sometimes generally is considered "transactional law." It could also include the practice area of business law, which would be closer to your situation.